For general problem, let the probability be P(k). We have the following equations: P(0) = (1-p) * 1 + p * P(1), ... P(k) = (1-p) * P(k-1) + p * P(k+1), ... We can derive the following equations: p * P(k+1) - (1-p) * P(k) = p * P(k) - (1-p) * P(k-1). Therefore, p * P(k+1) - (1-p) P(k) = ... = p * P(0) - (1-p) * 1. When k approaches 0, both P(k) and P(k+1) approach 0. Hence, P(0) = (1-p) / p, P(1) = P(0)^2, ..., P(k) = P(0)^(k-1). |
莫非这就是传说中的马尔可夫公式 |
A tiny problem: "both P(k) and P(k+1) approach 0", this is true only if p < 1/2. |
When k approaches infinity, P(k) and P(k+1) will approach 0 as long as p > 0. |
They are 1 for any k if p >=1/2. Try your own formula. |
that is true. |
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